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Tags: CCOA Vce Free, CCOA Valid Cram Materials, Study CCOA Reference, CCOA Reliable Exam Dumps, Popular CCOA Exams
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ISACA CCOA Exam Syllabus Topics:
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ISACA Certified Cybersecurity Operations Analyst Sample Questions (Q18-Q23):
NEW QUESTION # 18
The user of the Accounting workstation reported thattheir calculator repeatedly opens without their input.
Perform a query of startup items for the agent.nameaccounting-pc in the SIEM for the last 24 hours.
Identifythe file name that triggered RuleName SuspiciousPowerShell. Enter your response below. Your responsemust include the file extension.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution in Explanation.
Explanation:
To identify thefile namethat triggered theRuleName: Suspicious PowerShellon theaccounting-pc workstation, follow these detailed steps:
Step 1: Access the SIEM System
* Open your web browser and navigate to theSIEM dashboard.
* Log in with youradministrator credentials.
Step 2: Set Up the Query
* Go to theSearchorQuerysection of the SIEM.
* Set theTime Rangeto thelast 24 hours.
Query Parameters:
* Agent Name:accounting-pc
* Rule Name:Suspicious PowerShell
* Event Type:Startup items or Process creation
Step 3: Construct the SIEM Query
Here's an example of how to construct the query:
Example Query (Splunk):
index=windows_logs
| search agent.name="accounting-pc" RuleName="Suspicious PowerShell"
| where _time > now() - 24h
| table _time, agent.name, process_name, file_path, RuleName
Example Query (Elastic SIEM):
{
"query": {
"bool": {
"must": [
{ "match": { "agent.name": "accounting-pc" }},
{ "match": { "RuleName": "Suspicious PowerShell" }},
{ "range": { "@timestamp": { "gte": "now-24h" }}}
]
}
}
}
Step 4: Analyze the Query Results
* The query should return a table or list containing:
* Time of Execution
* Agent Name:accounting-pc
* Process Name
* File Path
* Rule Name
Example Output:
_time
agent.name
process_name
file_path
RuleName
2024-04-07T10:45:23
accounting-pc
powershell.exe
C:UsersAccountingAppDataRoamingcalc.ps1
Suspicious PowerShell
Step 5: Identify the Suspicious File
* Theprocess_namein the output showspowershell.exeexecuting a suspicious script.
* Thefile pathindicates the script responsible:
makefile
C:UsersAccountingAppDataRoamingcalc.ps1
* The suspicious script file is:
calc.ps1
Step 6: Confirm the Malicious Nature
* Manual Inspection:
* Navigate to the specified file path on theaccounting-pcworkstation.
* Check the contents of calc.ps1 for any malicious PowerShell code.
* Hash Verification:
* Generate theSHA256 hashof the file and compare it with known malware signatures.
calc.ps1
Step 7: Immediate Response
* Isolate the Workstation:Disconnectaccounting-pcfrom the network.
* Terminate the Malicious Process:
* Stop the powershell.exe process running calc.ps1.
* Use Task Manager or a script:
powershell
Stop-Process -Name "powershell" -Force
* Remove the Malicious Script:
powershell
Remove-Item "C:UsersAccountingAppDataRoamingcalc.ps1" -Force
* Scan for Persistence Mechanisms:
* CheckStartup itemsandScheduled Tasksfor any references to calc.ps1.
Step 8: Documentation
* Record the following:
* Date and Time:When the incident was detected.
* Affected Host:accounting-pc
* Malicious File:calc.ps1
* Actions Taken:File removal and process termination.
NEW QUESTION # 19
Which of the following utilities is MOST suitable for administrative tasks and automation?
- A. Access control list (ACL)
- B. System service dispatcher (SSO)
- C. Integrated development environment (IDE)
- D. Command line Interface (CLI)
Answer: D
Explanation:
TheCommand Line Interface (CLI)ismost suitable for administrative tasks and automationbecause:
* Scriptable and Automatable:CLI commands can be combined in scripts for automating repetitive tasks.
* Direct System Access:Administrators can directly interact with the system to configure, manage, and troubleshoot.
* Efficient Resource Usage:Consumes fewer system resources compared to graphical interfaces.
* Customizability:Advanced users can chain commands and create complex workflows using shell scripting.
Other options analysis:
* B. Integrated Development Environment (IDE):Primarily used for software development, not system administration.
* C. System service dispatcher (SSO):Not relevant for administrative tasks.
* D. Access control list (ACL):Manages permissions, not administrative automation.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition References:
* Chapter 9: System Administration Best Practices:Highlights the role of CLI in administrative and automation tasks.
* Chapter 7: Automation in Security Operations:Explains the efficiency of CLI-based automation.
NEW QUESTION # 20
Compliance requirements are imposed on organizations to help ensure:
- A. minimum capabilities for protecting public interests are in place.
- B. security teams understand which capabilities are most important for protecting organization.
- C. systemvulnerabilities are mitigated in a timely manner.
- D. rapidly changing threats to systems are addressed.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Compliance requirements are imposed on organizations to ensure that they meetminimum standards for protecting public interests.
* Regulatory Mandates:Many compliance frameworks (like GDPR or HIPAA) mandate minimum data protection and privacy measures.
* Public Safety and Trust:Ensuring that organizations follow industry standards to maintain data integrity and confidentiality.
* Baseline Security Posture:Establishes a minimum set of controls to protect sensitive information and critical systems.
Incorrect Options:
* A. System vulnerabilities are mitigated:Compliance does not directly ensure vulnerability management.
* B. Security teams understand critical capabilities:This is a secondary benefit but not the primary purpose.
* C. Rapidly changing threats are addressed:Compliance often lags behind new threats; it's more about maintaining baseline security.
Exact Extract from CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition:
Refer to Chapter 9, Section "Compliance and Legal Considerations," Subsection "Purpose of Compliance" - Compliance frameworks aim to ensure that organizations implement minimum protective measures for public safety and data protection.
NEW QUESTION # 21
Exposing the session identifier in a URL is an example of which web application-specific risk?
- A. Broken access control
- B. Identification and authentication failures
- C. Cryptographic failures
- D. Insecure design and implementation
Answer: B
Explanation:
Exposing thesession identifier in a URLis a classic example of anidentification and authentication failure because:
* Session Hijacking Risk:Attackers can intercept session IDs when exposed in URLs, especially through techniques likereferrer header leaksorlogs.
* Session Fixation:If the session ID is predictable or accessible, attackers can force a user to log in with a known ID.
* OWASP Top Ten 2021 - Identification and Authentication Failures (A07):Exposing session identifiers makes it easier for attackers to impersonate users.
* Secure Implementation:Best practices dictate storing session IDs inHTTP-only cookiesrather than in URLs to prevent exposure.
Other options analysis:
* A. Cryptographic failures:This risk involves improper encryption practices, not session management.
* B. Insecure design and implementation:Broad category, but this specific flaw is more aligned with authentication issues.
* D. Broken access control:Involves authorization flaws rather than authentication or session handling.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition References:
* Chapter 4: Web Application Security:Covers session management best practices and related vulnerabilities.
* Chapter 8: Application Security Testing:Discusses testing for session-related flaws.
NEW QUESTION # 22
A penetration tester has been hired and given access to all code, diagrams,and documentation. Which type oftesting is being conducted?
- A. Full knowledge
- B. No knowledge
- C. Partial knowledge
- D. Unlimited scope
Answer: A
Explanation:
The scenario describes apenetration testing approachwhere the tester is givenaccess to all code, diagrams, and documentation, which is indicative of aFull Knowledge(also known asWhite Box) testing methodology.
* Characteristics:
* Comprehensive Access:The tester has complete information about the system, including source code, network architecture, and configurations.
* Efficiency:Since the tester knows the environment, they can directly focus on finding vulnerabilities without spending time on reconnaissance.
* Simulates Insider Threats:Mimics the perspective of an insider or a trusted attacker with full access.
* Purpose:To thoroughly assess the security posture from aninformed perspectiveand identify vulnerabilities efficiently.
Other options analysis:
* B. Unlimited scope:Scope typically refers to the range of testing activities, not the knowledge level.
* C. No knowledge:This describesBlack Boxtesting where no prior information is given.
* D. Partial knowledge:This would beGray Boxtesting, where some information is provided.
CCOA Official Review Manual, 1st Edition References:
* Chapter 8: Penetration Testing Methodologies:Differentiates between full, partial, and no- knowledge testing approaches.
* Chapter 9: Security Assessment Techniques:Discusses how white-box testing leverages complete information for in-depth analysis.
NEW QUESTION # 23
......
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